DID JESUS DIE SPIRITUALLY ?
Exposing the JDS Heresy
POINT 5
ABANDONED
BY GOD, OR WAS
GOD IN CHRIST AT CALVARY?
The JDS ministers teach that when Jesus became "sin" with our sinfulness the Father totally rejected and forsook His Son for the three days He was in the Pit, having given Him over to Satan who became His master.
The quotation of Psalm 22:1 by Jesus on the cross is cited as proof of this abandonment by the Father. Among other statements from the cross Jesus also uttered the words from Psalm 22, saying, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
On the basis of all that we have previously shown about the meaning of the death of Jesus, it should be evident that this statement should be placed within the context of the entire teaching of Scripture concerning the atonement before we jump to some erroneous conclusion as the JDS supporters have done. Such a study will clearly show that the words of Jesus from Psalm 22:1 do not indicate the total abandonment of the Son by the Father. He speaks here of a legal separation, as the Father gives up His Son unto death on behalf of sinners. Jesus is God's own offering for sin Whom the Father gives up unto death to suffer the punishment for our guilt.
That Jesus was not totally abandoned by God is evident for several reasons:
(1) Jesus was God's own sacrifice and chosen by Him (John 1:29; 3:16; Isaiah 53), and such was never out of divine favor for one moment. In fact, He was never more pleasing to God that at Calvary, for there He is called "...an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweet smelling savour" (Ephesians 5:2). This is, of course, in perfect harmony with the Old Testament teaching that the sin-offering was MOST HOLY to God (Leviticus 6). It should be evident that the viewpoint of the Bible concerning the death of Jesus, and the theory of total abandonment held by the JDS teachers, who stumble over the "letter" of the word (e.g., Psalm 22:1; II Corinthians 5:21), while ignoring the rest of Scripture, are irreconcilable.
If Jesus on the cross was a fragrant offering and holy sacrifice unto God, then it is inconceivable that He could fit the description given Him by the JDS fraternity of that of a lost man, the serpent, unregenerate, one who was made sin with mankind's sinfulness, possessing Satan's evil nature, and was, therefore, totally rejected as God's Son and abandoned by Him!
Contrary to the sinful "Jesus" of the JDS teachers, the Jesus of the Bible is described by the Father Himself while He hung on the cross as "My righteous servant" (Isaiah 53). It was while on the cross that He was designated as a fragrant offering unto God (Ephesians 5:2).
(2) The quotation by Jesus from Psalm 22:1 did not indicate total abandonment whereby God ceased to be His Father, secondly, because it is impossible to separate the three eternal manifestations of the Godhead: Father, Son, Holy Spirit.
According to Colossians 2:9, it is said of Jesus Christ:
For in him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead in bodily form.
The Church has always held, as the Scriptures teach, that the Godhead cannot be divided, inasmuch as God is one Divine Spirit eternally manifested as the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Therefore, the JDS ministers, by making Jesus sinful, lost, and needing a new birth, have made the entire Godhead sinful, lost, and in need of a new birth!
By their failure to comprehend the nature of the Godhead, the JDS ministers have painted themselves into a corner by their unscriptural logic. What is their solution? They simply divide up the Godhead for three days by sending the Son of God to Hell, totally abandoned by the Father and the Holy Spirit.
We are informed by these "theological surgeons" that when Jesus became actual sin with our sinfulness "a part of God was separated from Himself, and God was no longer the Father of Jesus while He was in Hell"!
One is compelled to wonder if the JDS teachers have ever studied even the most elementary doctrines of the Bible, especially the nature and being of God, the nature and meaning of Old Testament sacrifices, and the doctrine of the Atonement. The clear fact that the Godhead cannot be separated or divided is one of the basic doctrines of the Christian faith. As previously noted, concerning Jesus we are informed that "...in him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9). In John 14:16-23, Jesus promises that when He sends the Holy Spirit to indwell the believer that both Jesus and the Father also come to abide in him. How can this be? It is because God is ONE Divine Spirit, and to have the Holy Spirit in you us also to have the Father and Son indwelling you (cf. John 10:30; 17:1f.).
Note: A detailed study of all the Bible Doctrines, including the nature of the Godhead, is available in my Biblical Theology Studies on tape from Faith Ministries.
A study of Church History will disclose that those who taught error concerning the Godhead, including any attempt to divide or separate the Godhead as the JDS teachers do, were considered to be heretics. The supporters of the JDS heresy may want to avail themselves of such information concerning the attitude of the Christian Church historically regarding attempts to tamper with the biblical Doctrine of the Godhead.
(3) The matter is clearly settled anyway in the same passage which the JDS teachers appeal to for their "total abandonment" theory; namely, II Corinthians 5:19-21.
As mentioned earlier, because they lack understanding concerning the nature of the Old Testament sacrifices, which were always holy to God, and apparently unaware that the usage of the biblical languages indicates that the term "sin" can stand for the "sin-offering," they take the term "sin" to mean "sinful" in II Corinthians 5:21, instead of sin-offering. However, their "total abandonment" error is clearly evident in this passage, for we are informed that "...God was IN CHRIST (at Calvary) reconciling the world unto himself" (II Corinthians 5:19).
This should settle the matter for anyone sincerely wanting scriptural answers to the JDS error. Since the Godhead cannot be divided (unless one believes in three Gods), and in view of the clear statement here in II Corinthians 5;19, stating that God was in Christ on the cross, then how could he have been totally forsaken?
What occurred was a legal separation as the Father gave His Son up unto death on our behalf. The Scriptures show that Jesus was holy, fragrant offering unto God at this time, according to Ephesians 5:2, Hebrews 9:14, and I Peter 1:18-19, which fulfilled the Old Testament type. The sin and trespass-offerings were MOST HOLY unto God (Leviticus 6-7). Remember too, the Father speaks of His Son while on the cross, not as "sin," but as "My righteous servant" (Isaiah 53:11).
The following considerations should also be noted as to the reason why Jesus would use this particular expression on the cross, saying, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
This utterance was not merely spontaneous, but Jesus was aware that He was reciting a quotation from a prophetic passage, Psalm 22:1. These were words which David first uttered in the midst of some of his trials, but which were also to have an application to the Messiah, as do numerous other Old Testament texts. In fact, the entire Psalm is prophetic, having reference to the crucifixion of Christ.
Thus, in view of its prophetic nature, such statements are said to be foreordained expressions to fulfill Scripture. Moreover, this was not the only Old Testament prophecy from which Jesus recited an utterance on the cross in fulfillment of Scripture.
In John 19:28 we are informed: "After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst." This utterance from the cross is based upon another Old Testament prophecy, Psalm 69:21, which is likewise a direct reference to the crucifixion.
This is not to imply that His utterance from Psalm 22;1 was merely a rhetorical question; nevertheless, it must be understood that Jesus was not asking a question from which He expected a reply from heaven, for He Himself repeatedly spoke of the necessity of His death on behalf of sinners.
Thus, in His agony He is aware that He is fulfilling Old Testament prophecies, including those He specifically quotes from which give physical descriptions and events surrounding the crucifixion, and which also contain certain of His foreordained utterances.
Furthermore, by these foreordained expressions from the cross He is identifying Himself as the One of whom the Old Testament prophecies spoke, and is also indicating why He cannot come down from the cross as He had been challenged to do in order to prove that He was the Son of God. Those who later examined the Old Testament Scripture saw this. Some interpreters suggest also that Jesus may have recited all of Psalm 22, as well as other prophecies concerning Him, while He hung on the cross for several hours.
After all, as everyone knows, not all that Jesus said or did is by any means recorded; in fact, only a small portion (John 21:25). This fact is evident when one considers that two of the Gospel writers (Luke and John) do not even record this quotation from Psalm 22:1 -- a crucial passage to the JDS teachers -- which they doubtless would have done if the "total abandonment" doctrine were true.
Certainly Jesus did not believe in the "total abandonment" theory, in which He expected to be totally forsaken by the Father in Hell for three days, for He had just previously promised the thief: "Today, thou shalt be with me in paradise." Only the inconsistencies of the JDS teaching could put Jesus in Heaven and Hell at the same time.
It should be noted also, in view of all this, that when Jesus first uttered these words, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" the religious leaders and the people of His day misinterpreted them, saying, "This man calleth for Elijah." It is not without significance that these same words of Jesus are still being misinterpreted by the JDS supporters today.
Remember, Peter warned that the unlearned and unstable wrest (distort, misinterpret) the Scriptures to their own destruction (II Peter 3:16). One of the ways in which this is done is by adhering to the mere "letter" of the Word in an attempt to prove some preconceived idea or doctrine. That is, such individuals search through the Bible looking for some term or verse which seems to fit their theory, while they either ignore or are ignorant of the context or teaching of all the Scripture on the matter. This method of "proving" one's doctrine is always self-defeating in the end, as such individuals ultimately find their position contradicted by some other portion of the Bible.
One or two examples should suffice to indicate the theological problems to be encountered when one takes merely the "letter" of what was said and overlooks the intent of the speaker, or chooses to ignore the rest of Scripture on the matter.
In Matthew 19:16-17, the rich young ruler asked Jesus: "Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?" Now, if you were to take the mere "letter" of Jesus' words in reply, you could have Him saying that He Himself was not good, for he answered: "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God" (Matt.19:17).
Note: Although some versions omit "that is, God," it is implied.
Following the JDS logic, this would also make Jesus unrighteous before His death on the cross, just as they claim that He was unrighteous on it. this clearly indicates how some conclusions can end up as erroneous and out of harmony with the rest of Scripture when one takes merely the bare "letter" of some passage, rather than its meaning in light of the whole Bible.
Another example is found in Hebrews 5:8 where it is said of Jesus: "Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered." Again, as the Liberals and cults do, one could cite the "letter" of these words in support of the teaching which states that Jesus is not divine or perfectly sinless, but is a mere human subject to the same imperfections as all men. However, in the light of the whole teaching of Scripture concerning Jesus Christ, we know that the meaning here is simply that Jesus, in His humanity, had to experience being obedient in the midst of His trials and sufferings. By His perfect obedience He gave evidence of His qualifications to be God's substitute for sinners. This is the sense in verse 9: "It was after He proved Himself perfect through His obedience, that He became the author of eternal salvation..."
These two examples should be sufficient to illustrate the doctrinal dangers of "out of context" and mere "letter" interpretations of God's Word, which can be found in cult teaching, as well as the JDS Doctrine.
Forsaken by God? No. Jesus' quotation from Psalm 22:1, saying, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" does not meant total abandonment. The implication here is that God had temporarily "turned away" in that instead of delivering His Son from death, which the Gospels show He did on several occasions, the Father delivered Him up unto death when He became "sin" (a sin-offering) for others.
Jesus Himself did not believe in total abandonment on the cross, for He confessed a few hours before His crucifixion:
Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me (John 16:32).
He could say this because "God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself" (II Corinthians 5:19).
However, the JDS teachers ignore this fact and look only at the mere "letter" of the word in verse 21, and concluded that Jesus actually became "sin," ignorant of the Old and New Testament usage of this term in connection with sacrifice in which it means "sin-offering." They overlook too the nature of the sin-offering which was always most holy, and a sweet-smelling savour unto God (Leviticus 6-7; Ephesians 5:2).